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Post by nork on Dec 29, 2005 16:35:08 GMT -5
I am curious about how weapon brand/slaying damage is applied. Is that damage considered more physical damage and is reduced my monster level, or is that considered magic damage and not reduced by monster level, or some thing in the middle?
What I am trying to figure out is, is it better to have a 5d10 weapon with a brand/slaying on it or a 10d10 with out. Or is it just figured the same.
Thanks Nork
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Post by Variaz on Dec 30, 2005 14:14:20 GMT -5
Actually, damage from brands are physical, they muyltiply the original damages as long as the monster is not resistant to that type of damages. So a 5d10 fire branded weapon will do x3 damages against monsters that do not resist fire, but that will still be physical damages.
Now, in a future version, I plan on changing that, so branded weapons will not multiply damages, but add separate, magic damages on their own. How I will calculate everything is yet to be determined, but that's one of my plans.
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Post by nork on Jan 4, 2006 13:11:39 GMT -5
So I found the damage formula for melee weapons. I am curious where in the formula the branding/slaying fits in. Does it modify the base damage or is it applied at the end of the formula or some where else?
(((Base damages roll * 3) * weapon skill) + weapon to_d) * multiplier
Thanks again Nork
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Post by Variaz on Jan 6, 2006 8:50:01 GMT -5
I don't have the code in front of me, but I believe it is applied before the multiplier.
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